WEEKLY TEST (14-11-2022) 

AFCAT-CDSE-CAPF (2023)

TEST QUESTION PAPER CODE : GKN43401

Total Questions : 80 | Marks : 100

1. Atal New India Challenge (ANIC), recently seen in news, is an initiative of:

a) NITI Aayog

b) DRDO

c) CSIR

d) IIT Delhi

Explanation: Atal Innovation Mission of NITI Aayog recently launched the Women centric challenges under the 2nd edition of Atal New India Challenge (ANIC).

• ANIC’s Woman centric challenges address the major issues faced by women from all spheres of life.
• These include driving women hygiene through innovation, innovations to improve women’s safety, professional networking opportunities for women, innovations that make working mothers’ life better, and easing the life of Rural Women.
• ANIC is an initiative by Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog targeted to seek, select, support and nurture technology-based innovations that solve sectoral challenges of national importance and societal relevance through a grant-based mechanism of up to INR 1 crore.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. Sharm-el-Sheikh Adaptation Agenda, recently seen in news, is related to:

a) BRICS

b) G20

c) G7

d) UNFCCC COP27

Explanation : Seeking to minimise devastating impacts of climate change on vulnerable people across the globe, the COP27 Presidency has launched the Sharm-el-Sheikh Adaptation Agenda outlining 30 goals to enhance resilience for 4 billion people living in the most climate vulnerable communities by 2030.

The 30 Adaptation Outcomes include urgent global 2030 targets related to:

• Transitioning to climate resilient, sustainable agriculture that can increase yields by 17% and reduce farm level greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions by 21%, without expanding agricultural frontiers, and while improving livelihoods including of smallholder farmers Protecting and restoring an estimated 400 million hectares in critical areas (land and freshwater ecosystems) supporting indigenous and local communities with use of nature-based solutions to improve water security and livelihoods and to transform 2 billion hectares of land into sustainable management.
• Protecting 3 billion people by installing smart and early warning systems Investing USD 4 billion to secure the future of 15 million hectares of mangroves through collective action to halt loss, restore, double protection and ensure sustainable finance for all existing mangroves.
• Expanding access to clean cooking for 2.4 billion people through at least USD 10 billion/year in innovative finance.
• Mobilising USD 140 to USD 300 billion needed across both public and private sources for adaptation and resilience and spur 2,000 of the world's largest companies to integrate physical climate risk and develop actionable adaptation plans.
• The Agenda emphasises the urgency for counting with evidence-based, actionable adaptation plans for all actors, making climate risks visible and accessible, and to deploy the locally-led adaptation principles.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

3. Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund (IRAF) will be managed by:

a) United Nations Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office

b) World Bank

c) IMF

d) New Development Bank

Explanation : The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) recently announced setting up the Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund (IRAF).

• It is a multi-donor trust fund, established with the support of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
• It will be managed by the United Nations Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (UN MPTFO) to support global action on disaster resilience of infrastructure systems, especially in developing countries and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).
• Around $50 million in financial commitments have already been announced for IRAF over an initial duration of five years.
• IRAF will play a crucial role in equipping the Coalition to deliver improved infrastructure governance, inclusive infrastructure services, diversified knowledge, and financing for resilient infrastructure globally.
• One of the first initiatives to be supported by the IRAF is the Infrastructure for the Resilient Island States (IRIS).
• Supported by the Governments of India, the United Kingdom, Australia, and the European Union, IRAF’s multi-pronged program focus will offer customised technical assistance, capacity building, research, knowledge management, and advocacy across the infrastructure life cycle for countries at all stages of development.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. With reference to the Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC), consider the following statements:

1. It was launched at the COP27 Summit in Egypt.

2. Karnataka has the highest percentage of mangrove cover in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : Spearheaded by the UAE in partnership with Indonesia, MAC was launched at the COP27 Summit in Egypt to scale up and accelerate the conservation and restoration of the mangrove forests.

• The alliance will raise awareness about the role of mangroves as a "nature-based solution to climate change".
• The alliance will be amplified at the G20 Summit that will be held between November 15 and 16, 2022 in Bali under the presidency of Indonesia.
• The MAC seeks to scale up, accelerate conservation, restoration and growing plantation efforts of mangrove ecosystems for the benefit of communities globally, and recognize the importance of these ecosystems for climate change mitigation and adaptation.

Mangroves in India:

• India contributes to nearly half of the total mangrove cover in South Asia.
• According to the Forest Survey report 2021 released in January, mangroves cover in the country is 4,992 square km, which is 0.15 per cent of the country's total geographical area. Since 2019, the cover has risen by only 17 sq km.
• West Bengal has the highest percentage of mangrove cover in India, mainly because it has Sundarbans, the largest mangrove forest in the world. It is followed by Gujarat and Andaman, and Nicobar islands.
• Other states that have mangrove cover are Maharashtra, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Kerala.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

5. Which of the following country recently unveiled a new carbon offset scheme called Energy Transition Accelerator (ETA) for climate finance?

a) Germany

b) U.S.A

c) India

d) China

Explanation : U.S.A unveiled new carbon offset scheme called Energy Transition Accelerator (ETA) for climate finance.

• It will be developed by the US along with the Bezos Earth Fund and the Rockefeller Foundation and receive inputs from public and private sectors.
• It is a new carbon offset plan that will allow companies to fund clean energy projects in developing countries and gain carbon credits that they can then use to meet their own climate goals, at least partly.
• According to U.S.A, the concept is to put the carbon market to work, deploy capital otherwise undeployable, and speed up the transition from dirty to clean power, for two puposes- to retire unabated coal fired power and accelerate renewables.
• The ETA is expected to deliver deeper and earlier emissions reductions, help developing countries achieve and strengthen their nationally determined contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement, and help them advance broader sustainable development goals, including expanded energy access.
• The ETA is expected to operate through 2030, possibly extending to 2035.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. The Battle of Walong was the only counterattack India could manage in the 1962 India-China War. It is located in:

a) Arunachal Pradesh

b) Sikkim

c) Nagaland

d) Gujarat

Explanation : Indian Army recently organised Walong Mela in continuation of Diamond Jubilee celebrations of Battle of Walong.

• It aims to commemorate the unsurpassable bravery & sacrifice of the Indian Army while defending the Indian Territory against the Chinese aggression of 1962.
• The aim of the Mela was to familiarise the public with the Indian Army & to encourage a sense of belongingness & togetherness.

Battle of Walong:

• Walong is one of India’s easternmost villages in Arunachal Pradesh.
• In the 1962 India-China War, the Indian Army defended against China in all sectors except one — Arunachal Pradesh’s Walong.
• The Battle of Walong was the only counterattack India could manage in the war.
• Indian Army held back the Chinese troops for 27 days, which forced the Chinese to deploy its reserve division from Tawang to Walong.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

7. Veerangana Sewa Kendra, recently seen in news, is an initiative of:

a) Indian Army

b) DRDO

c) NITI Aayog

d) None of the above

Explanation : Indian Army has recently launched a single window facility - Veerangana Sewa Kendra (VSK) for welfare and grievances redressal of Veer Naris.

• The system caters to registering grievances with tracking, monitoring, and regular feedback to the applicant.
• Veernaris / Next of Kin will have multiple means for approaching the VSK through telephone, SMS, WhatsApp, Post, e-mail and walk-ins to seek assistance.
• Stakeholders can monitor the status of grievances through Customer Relationship Management (CRM) software.
• The facility has been launched as Veer naris are employed as VSK staff to maintain inherent connection and empathy with the beneficiaries.
• The VSK is one of its kind initiatives by the Indian Army towards extending genuine care and support to its widows and veer naris and NoKs.
• Veerangana Sewa Kendra (VSK) will be available as a service to the Indian Army Veterans Portal.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

8. With reference to the Millets, consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Millets.

2. The country's top five millet-producing states are Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : The Central government has recently formulated an action plan to promote exports of millet. The government has planned to facilitate participation of exporters, farmers, and traders in 16 international trade expos and Buyer Seller Meet for exports and promotion of Indian millets across the globe.

• According to the action plan, Indian missions abroad would be roped in branding and publicity of Indian millets.
• This include, identification of potential buyers such as departmental stores, supermarkets, and hypermarkets for organizing business-to-business meetings and direct tie-ups.
• As part of the promotion of Indian millets, Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority has planned to showcase millets and its value-added product on various global platforms.

International Year of Millets:

• The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets.
• India is one of the leading producers of millet in the world with an estimated share of around 41 percent in global production.
• The country recorded 27 percent growth in millet production in 2021-22 which stood at 15.92 million metric tonnes.
• The country's top five millet-producing states are Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh.
• It is estimated that the millets market is set to grow to 12 billion US dollars by 2025 from the current 9 billion dollars.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

9. With reference to the Mahua, consider the following statements:

1. The flowers of Mahua tree are fermented to produce an alcoholic drink also called Mahua.

2. It is found only in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : Recently a herd of elephants in Odisha drank the fermented water to make mahua and went into a deep sleep.

• The flowers of Mahua tree (Madhuca longifolia) are fermented to produce an alcoholic drink also called Mahua.
• Tribal men and women in various parts of India traditionally make this liquor.
• It is found in West Bengal, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, in parts of northern and central India, in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Telangana, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
• Mahua is considered holy amongst the tribes of India.
• It is called the ‘Tree of Life’. Not just the flower, each and every part of the tree is used for something or the other. Even the shell of the fruit is used at the time of funeral rites.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

10. Ranthambore National Park is located in:

a) Rajasthan

b) Odisha

c) Tamil Nadu

d) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation : The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has recently ordered that Ranthambore Festival, a musical extravaganza proposed to be conducted close to the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan, can be held only if it is permitted by the authorities.

• Ranthambore National Park is located in Rajasthan.
• It is located at the junction of the Aravali and Vindhya hill ranges.
• It is the natural habitat to the significant number of Royal Bengal tigers.
• Apart from tigers, the major wild animals include Leopard, Nilgai, Wild boar, Sambar, Hyena, Sloth bear and Chital.
• The number of tigers and their cubs in the adjoining areas of Ranthambore has gone up from 66 in 2019 to 81 in 2021.

History:

• Ranthambore National Park was established initially as Sawai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955 by the Government of India.
• In 1973, it was declared as one of the Project Tiger reserves in India.
• It was on 1st November, 1980 that Ranthambore was declared a national park, while the forests located beside it were named Sawai Man Singh Sanctuary & Keladevi Sanctuary.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

11. With reference to the Aerosol pollution, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to particles in the air emitted by vehicles and factories that burn fossil fuels.

2. Aerosol optical depth (AOD) is the quantitative estimate of the aerosol present in the atmosphere and can be used as a proxy measurement of PM2.5.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : A recent study by scientists from the Bose Institute in Kolkata has revealed that aerosol pollution in West Bengal is anticipated to rise by 8% and continue to remain in the “highly vulnerable” red zone in 2023. This is the second highest forecasted aerosol pollution level in the country after Bihar.

• Aerosols are fine particulates that float in the atmosphere.
• Aerosol pollution refers to particles in the air emitted by vehicles and factories that burn fossil fuels.
• High aerosol amounts include particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10) among other pollutants as well as sea salt, dust, black and organic carbon.
• Primary aerosols like dust, soot, or sea salt, come directly from the planet’s surface. They get lifted into the atmosphere by gusty winds, shot high into the air by exploding volcanoes, or they waft away from smokestacks or flames.
• Secondary aerosols form when different things floating in the atmosphere—like organic compounds released by plants, liquid acid droplets, or other materials—crash together, culminating in a chemical or physical reaction.

Impact:

• If inhaled they can be harmful.
• This pollution contributes to asthma, bronchitis, and long-term irritation of the respiratory tract, which can lead to cancer.

Aerosols influence climate in two primary ways:

• by changing the amount of heat that gets in or out of the atmosphere, or
• by affecting the way clouds form.

Aerosol optical depth (AOD):

• Aerosol optical depth (AOD) is the quantitative estimate of the aerosol present in the atmosphere and can be used as a proxy measurement of PM2.5.
• AOD is measured on the basis of how much light is getting attenuated due to the presence of particulate matter.
• More particulates present means more light will be absorbed and hence more will be the AOD. It is measured with the help of remote sensing using satellites.

The values of AOD range from 0 to 1.0.

While 0 indicates a crystal-clear sky with maximum visibility, a value of 1 indicates very hazy conditions.

• AOD values less than 0.3 fall under the green zone (safe),
• 0.3-0.4 is blue zone (less vulnerable),
• 0.4-0.5 is orange (vulnerable), and
• Over 0.5 is the red zone (highly vulnerable).

Hence both statements are correct.

12. Garuda-VII Air Exercise is a bilateral exercise between Indian Air Force (IAF) and:

a) French Air and Space Force

b) Royal Navy of United Kingdom

c) German Air Force

d) None of the above

Explanation : The chiefs of Indian and French Air Forces recently joined the Air Exercise Garuda-VII in Jodhpur.

• It is a bilateral exercise between Indian Air Force (IAF) and French Air and Space Force (FASF).
• It provides a unique opportunity for both Air Forces to learn and imbibe each other’s best practices during operations while also highlighted the growing interoperability between the two Air Forces.
• Ex Garuda-VII is also the first occasion for the light combat aircraft (LCA) Tejas and the light combat helicopter (LCH) Prachand to participate in any international exercise.
• It includes four Rafale fighters and one A-330 multi-role tanker transport aircraft from the French side.
• Apart from the LCA and LCH, the IAF contingent consists of Su-30 MK-I, Rafale and Jaguar fighter aircraft, as well as Mi-17 helicopters.

History:

• This is the seventh edition of the bilateral exercise.
• The first, third and fifth editions were conducted in India in 2003, 2006 and 2014 at Air Force Stations Gwalior, Kalaikunda and Jodhpur, respectively.
• The second, fourth and sixth editions were conducted in France in 2005, 2010 and 2019.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

13. With reference to the Selection of ‘Conference of the Parties’ to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Host, consider the following statements:

1. The countries in the region propose a candidate, and a host is usually decided at least two years in advance.

2. After the 2012 COP in Delhi, the event has not yet returned to Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : The United Nations Climate Change Conference 2022 — COP27 — opened recently in Sharm el-Sheikh with the aim of ensuring full implementation of the Paris Agreement adopted in 2015. 

• Sharm el-Sheikh, often called just Sharm, is a resort town in Egypt, situated at the southern tip of the Sinai peninsula where the Gulf of Aqaba joins the Red Sea.
• It is a major tourist centre in Egypt, and also, like Cancun in Mexico, a preferred venue for international conferences.

Selection of COP host

• The venue for the COP meeting rotates among the five UN-identified regions: Africa, Asia-Pacific, Eastern Europe, Latin America and Caribbean, and Western Europe and Others.
• The countries in the region propose a candidate, and a host is usually decided at least two years in advance.
• If no country agrees to be the host, Bonn, where the UNFCCC secretariat is headquartered, steps in as host.
• The rotation cycle has not been followed very strictly.
• The first and second COPs were held in western Europe (Berlin and Geneva), and so were the fifth and sixth (Bonn and the Hague).
• After the 2012 COP in Doha, the event has not yet returned to Asia.

Countries are sometimes not enthusiastic to host the event.  This is mainly due to two reasons.

• One, the host city incurs huge expenditure on the event, not all of which is reimbursed. There are many thousands of participants, a large number of high-profile visits by international dignitaries, and frequent disruptions by protesters who come from all over the world — all of which stretch the city’s resources and are sometimes more trouble than they are worth.
• Two, the host country, which presides over the conference, is expected to demonstrate leadership in taking steps to combat climate change.
• This is the reason why countries like the US, China, or Russia, or even Japan, Australia, or Canada, are not keen to host COP.
• Japan hosted the 1997 event that produced the Kyoto Protocol, but it was also the first country to walk out of it in 2011.
• Australia, which too withdrew from the Kyoto Protocol, has never hosted the conference.
• India, the third largest emitter, hosted the 2002 COP in New Delhi, much before climate change became a big thing.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

14. ‘Broadcast Air-Time Scheduler (BATS)’ recently seen in the news is a

a) Malware developed by China

b) Airport Surface Detection Equipment

c) Live-streaming software developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

d) Integrated Traffic & Billing application software

Explanation : Integrated Traffic & Billing application software “BATS” inaugurated for all Commercial Operations of All India Radio” to Increases operational efficiency and reduces cost.'

• BATS can bring about transparency into the entire operations and make the entire commercial operations very efficient.
• It allows monitoring of booking, billing and payment receipts etc. at various stages and system can provide various reports which are very essential in taking many management decisions.
• BATS has the following important features:
• To manage the scheduling and billing of advertising orders across multiple stations via one central database.
• Increases operational efficiency and reduces cost.
• Media Sales Traffic increases the efficiency of the organization by providing traffic team a flexible solution for planning, scheduling and billing of spots.
• Ensures accurate billing by effectively managing account hierarchy, different Package and Products etc. Payment processing and collections through integrated Payment Gateway of SBI.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

15. With reference to G-20, consider the following statements:

1. It operates without a permanent secretariat or staff.

2. India, China and the United States are its member countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : Prime Minister will unveil the logo, theme and website of India’s G20 Presidency on 8th November 2022.

• G20 Presidency offers India an opportunity to contribute to the global agenda on pressing issues of international importance.

What is G20? G20 is the premier forum for international economic cooperation representing around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and about two-thirds of the world population.

Origin and Evolution:

• The G20 was formed in 1999 in the backdrop of the financial crisis of the late 1990s that hit East Asia and Southeast Asia in particular. Its aim was to secure global financial stability by involving middle-income countries.
• The first G20 Summit took place in 2008 in Washington DC, US.

The members of the G20 are: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Türkiye, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union.

Organizational Structure of G20

• The G-20 operates without a permanent secretariat or staff.
• The chair rotates annually among the members and is selected from a different regional grouping of countries.
• The chair is part of a revolving three-member management group of past, present and future chairs referred to as the Troika.

Working of G20: The preparatory process for the G20 Summit is conducted through the established Sherpa and Finance tracks that prepare and follow up on the issues and commitments adopted at the Summits.

• The Sherpas’ Track focuses on non-economic and financial issues, such as development, anti-corruption and food security, while addressing internal aspects such as procedural rules of the G20 process.
• The Finance Track focuses on economic and financial issues

Hence both statements are correct.

16. With reference to Law Commission of India, consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body constituted by Legal Services Authorities Act 1987.

2. The tenure of Law Commission is for three years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : Recently, the Retired High Court Chief Justice Rituraj Awasthi has been appointed as the chairperson of the Law commission.

• The appointment comes after more than two years after the 22nd Law Commission was notified on February 24, 2020.

Status: Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India.

Background:

• The Charter Act 1833 which was enacted by the British Parliament provided for the establishment of a Law Commission for consolidation and codification of Indian Laws.
• In 1835, Lord Macaulay was appointed as Chairman of the First Law Commission.

Tenure: The tenure of Law Commission is for three years.

Mandate:

• The Law Commission shall, on a reference made to it by the Central Government or suo-motu, undertake research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein and enacting new legislations.
• It shall also undertake studies and research for bringing reforms in the justice delivery systems for elimination of delay in procedures, speedy disposal of cases, reduction in cost of litigation etc.

Composition & Eligibility: It has no fixed composition, no defined eligibility criteria for its chair and members, and no set functions.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

17. With reference to the National Florence Nightingale Award, consider the following statements:

1. It is given to outstanding Nursing personnel employed in central, State/UTs, Private, Missionary and Voluntary Organizations.

2. It is instituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :  President of India Presents National Florence Nightingale Awards 2021.

• The National Florence Nightingale Awards were instituted in the year 1973 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare as a mark of recognition for the meritorious services rendered by nurses and nursing professionals to society.
• The award is given to outstanding Nursing personnel employed in central, State/UTs, Private, Missionary and Voluntary Organizations.

Florence Nightingale

• Florence Nightingale was an English social reformer, statistician and the founder of modern nursing.
• Nightingale came to prominence while serving as a manager and trainer of nurses during the Crimean War, in which she organised care for wounded soldiers at Constantinople.
• Her efforts to formalize nursing education led her to establish the first scientifically based nursing school—the Nightingale School of Nursing, at St. Thomas’ Hospital in London.

Hence both statements are correct.

18. HARIT Aaykar initiative is launched by:

a) Income Tax Department

b) NITI Aayog

c) DRDO

d) CSIR

Explanation : HARIT Aaykar initiative recently launched by Income Tax Department for increasing greenery and creating micro forests.

• It was launched on the occasion of National Unity Day to increase greenery and create micro forests.
• Under this initiative, the Income Tax Department resolves to increase the green cover by planting trees and creating micro-forests in and around Income Tax Department's buildings and other public areas.

Micro forests:

• A micro-forest is a small, planted forest that maximises tree density and biodiversity.
• The Miyawaki method, which was devised by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s, is a technique to create micro forests over small plots of land.
• Achieving this goal requires planting a wide variety of plants in a fairly dense manner so that the plot of land has different layers of a forest such as shrubs and canopies and not just trees.
• Plants typically require anywhere between eight to nine months of care before reaching a point where the micro forest becomes self-sustaining.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

19. With reference to the Doctrine of Pleasure, consider the following statements:

1. Article 72 imposes restrictions on the removal of a civil servant.

2. Under Article 164, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor; and the other Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the CM’s advice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : Recently Kerala Governor has sought the dismissal of State’s Finance Minister from his Cabinet, declaring that he has withdrawn the pleasure of having him in the Council of Ministers.

• The pleasure doctrine is a concept derived from English common law, under which the crown can dispense with the services of anyone in its employ at any time.
• In India, Article 310 of the Constitution of India says every person in the defence or civil service of the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President, and every member of the civil service in the States holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
• However, Article 311 imposes restrictions on the removal of a civil servant.
• It provides for civil servants being given a reasonable opportunity for a hearing on the charges against them.
• There is also a provision to dispense with the inquiry if it is not practicable to hold one, or if it is not expedient to do so in the interest of national security.
• In practical terms, the pleasure of the President referred to here is that of the Union government, and the Governor’s pleasure is that of the State government.
• Under Article 164, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor; and the other Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the CM’s advice.
• It adds that Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
• In a constitutional scheme in which they are appointed solely on the CM’s advice, the ‘pleasure’ referred to is also taken to mean the right of the Chief Minister to dismiss a Minister, and not that of the Governor.
• In short, the Governor of an Indian State cannot remove a Minister on his own.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

20. World Energy Outlook 2022 is published by:

a) World Bank

b) IMF

c) UNDP

d) International Energy Agency

Explanation : International Energy Agency (IEA) recently published World Energy Outlook 2022.

• This flagship publication of the IEA has appeared every year since 1998.
• Its objective data and dispassionate analysis provide critical insights into global energy supply and demand in different scenarios and the implications for energy security, climate targets and economic development.

Highlights:

• According to the World Energy Outlook 2022, Russia’s invasion of Ukraine is a historic turning point in global energy markets, providing an unprecedented incentive to accelerate the transition to clean energy sources of fuel.
• Electricity and heat demand in the winter months shoot up in the Northern Hemisphere, so it is likely to be a challenging time for the European Union for the next couple of years.
• The global energy crisis has sparked desperate attempts from governments to promote energy security.
• Oil currently comprises 80 per cent of the global energy mix, but it may drop to 75 per cent by 2030 and around 60 per cent by 2050.

IEA’s report talks mostly in terms of two models –

1. Stated policies scenario (STEPS) and
2. Announced pledges scenario (APS).

• STEPS provides a more conservative benchmark for the future, because it does not take it for granted that governments will reach all announced goals. Instead, it takes a more granular, sector-by-sector look at what has actually been put in place to reach these and other energy-related objectives, taking into account not just existing policies and measures but also those that are under development.
• APS aims to show to what extent the announced ambitions and targets, including the most recent ones, are on the path to deliver emissions reductions required to achieve net zero emissions by 2050. 

India:

• India’s coal generation and oil imports are going to peak in 2030, while gas imports will double around the same time.
• India became the world’s second‐largest coal producer in 2021 (in energy terms), overtaking Australia and Indonesia, and that it plans to increase domestic production by more than 100 million tonnes of coal equivalent (Mtce) by 2025 from the current levels.
• At present, India accounts for just over 10 percent of global coal consumption, after China which accounts for 55 percent.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

21. Donyi Polo Airport, recently seen in news, is located in:

a) Arunachal Pradesh

b) Assam

c) Sikkim

d) Mizoram

Explanation : The  Union Cabinet has approved the naming of  Hollongi Greenfield Airport in  Itanagar of Arunachal Pradesh  as “Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar”.

• The name reflect the people’s reverence of the Sun as Donyi and the Moon as Polo to symbolize the traditions and rich cultural heritage of the State.
• In January,2019, the Central government granted in-principle’ approval for development of Hollongi Greenfield Airport. 
• The project is being developed by Airports Authority of India  with the help of Central Government and the State Government of at a cost of ₹646 crore.
• With a 2,300 metre runway, the greenfield airport is the first in Arunachal Pradesh to have the capacity to land big aircraft. 
• The Hollongi airport is the state’s third after Pasighat and Tezu airports and only airport in the capital city.
• The central government had earlier accorded its approval for setting up of the “greenfield airport" under the `Capital Connectivity Scheme` to build up fixed wing air connectivity facility to the state capital.
• The Donyi Polo airport in Itanagar is northeast India`s 16th airport.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

22. With reference to the Zojila Day, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to celebrate the gallant action by Indian troops in 'Operation Bison' in 1948.

2. 'Operation Bison' was historic for the reason that tanks were used for the first time at such heights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : Zojila Day was commemorated at Zojila War Memorial near Drass on November 1.

• It aims to celebrate the gallant action by Indian troops in 'Operation Bison' in 1948 which was launched on the icy heights of Zojila pass, the gateway to Ladakh.
• This day marked the Indian Army's historic win over the Pakistani regulars and infiltrators, and helped recapture the strategic Zojila Pass
• This battle was also historic for the reason that tanks were used for the first time at such heights.

Zojila Pass:

• Zojila is a pass connecting the Kashmir Valley with the cold Indus valley desert in Ladakh region through the 434-km strategic Srinagar-Leh National Highway. 
• It runs at an elevation of approximately 3,528 metres (11,575 ft), and is the second highest pass on the Srinagar-Leh National Highway after Fotu La. 
• It is often closed during winter. The Beacon Force unit of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is responsible for its clearing and maintenance during Winter. 

Hence both statements are correct.

23. Emissions Gap Report 2022, is published by:

a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

b) NITI Aayog

c) World Economic Forum

d) None of the above

Explanation : According to the Emissions Gap Report 2022, current pledges by countries for reducing greenhouse gas emissions would still leave the world warmer by 2.4-2.6 degrees celsius by the end of the century.

• The report was released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• It is managed by the UNEP Copenhagen Climate Centre.
• It serves as a “scientifically authoritative source of timely and policy-relevant information to key decision-makers,” guiding the UNFCCC process and implementing the Paris Agreement.
• The Paris Agreement, adopted by 196 countries in 2015 at COP 21, was aimed at limiting global warming and maintaining the average global temperature rise, ideally, to below 1.5°C.

Highlights:

• The report found that the updated pledges by countries, also known as nationally determined contributions (NDC) under the Paris Agreement, only reduce the projected greenhouse emissions by 1 per cent by 2030.
• It is roughly equivalent to 0.5 gigatonnes of CO2.
• This is when a 45 per cent reduction is required for the world to limit global warming to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
• The pre-industrial period is generally considered to be between 1850 and 1900. 
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

24. With reference to the One nation, One ITR form, consider the following statements:

1. According to the proposal, all taxpayers, barring trusts and non-profit organisations, can use the common ITR form.

2. The current ITR-1 and ITR-4 will continue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has proposed a single income tax return (ITR) form for all taxpayers. 

• According to the proposal, all taxpayers, barring trusts and non-profit organisations, can use the common ITR form, which also includes a separate head for disclosure of income from virtual digital assets.
• The draft ITR form aims to bring ease of filing returns and reduce the time for filing the ITR by individuals and non-business-type taxpayers considerably.
• It proposes to introduce a common ITR by merging all the existing returns of income except ITR-7. However, the current ITR-1 and ITR-4 will continue.
• This will give an option to such taxpayers to file the return either in the existing form (ITR-1 or ITR-4), or the proposed common ITR, at their convenience.

Current Scenario:

• There are seven kinds of ITR forms, which are used by different categories of taxpayers. They are as follows:
• ITR Form 1, called ‘Sahaj’, is for small and medium taxpayers. Sahaj forms can be filed by individuals who have an income up to Rs 50 lakh, with earnings from salary, one house property/ other sources (interest etc).
• ITR-2 is filed by people with income from residential property.
• ITR-3 is intended for people who have income as profits from business/ profession
• ITR-4 (Sugam) is, like ITR-1 (Sahaj), a simple forms, and can be filed by individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) and firms with total income up to Rs 50 lakh from business and profession.
• ITR-5 and 6 are for limited liability partnerships (LLPs) and businesses respectively.
• ITR-7 is filed by trusts and non-profit organisations.

Hence both statements are correct.

25. Consider the following Statements:

1. Regulating Act of 1773 requires the Court of Directors to report its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India, to British Parliament.

2. Pitt’s India Act of 1784 established a system of double government.

3. Charter Act of 1853 has introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Regulating Act of 1773: This act was of great constitutional importance as -

• It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company (EIC) in India.
• It recognised, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
• It laid the foundations of central administration in India.

It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Pitt’s India Act of 1784: It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.

26. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Acts:

1. The Act of 1861 established of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Provinces and Punjab.

2. The Act of 1892 increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central and provincial legislative councils and diluted the official majority.

3. The Act of 1909 enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils, allowed supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Indian Councils Act of 1861: Viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, NorthWestern Provinces and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1886 and 1897, respectively. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Indian Councils Act of 1892: It increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central and provincial legislative councils but maintained the official majority in them. Hence statement 2 is not correct. It increased the functions of legislative councils and gave them the power of discussing the budget and addressing questions to the executive.

Indian Councils Act of 1909: It is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms

27. Consider the following Statements regarding Government of India (GoI) Act of 1935:

1. It divided federal subjects into reserved and transferred subjects.

2. It provided separate electorates for women and labour (workers).

3. India was governed as per this Act till the new Constitutions was framed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation Government of India Act of 1935: It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.

• Consequently, the federal subjects were divided into reserved subjects and transferred subjects. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation at all.
• It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. Thus, the legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made bicameral consisting of a legislative council (upper house) and a legislative assembly (lower house). However, many restrictions were placed on them.
• It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women and labour (workers). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Indian Independence Act of 1947: It provided for the governance of each of the dominions and the provinces by the Government of India Act of 1935, till the new Constitutions were framed. The dominions were however authorized to make modifications in the Act. Hence statement 3 is correct.

28. Consider the following statements:

1. The measurements of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) differ by net factor income from abroad.

2. Net National Product is calculated by deducting depreciation from the Gross National Product.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Gross domestic product (GDP) and Gross national product (GNP) are both widely used measures of a country's aggregate economic output.

Gross domestic product (GDP) is the value of a nation's finished domestic goods and services during a specific time period. GDP measures the value of goods and services produced within a country's borders, by citizens and non-citizens alike. GNP measures the value of goods and services produced by only a country's citizens but both domestically and abroad. Therefore GNP is defined as follows

GNP= GDP + Factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world – Factor income earned by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy.

Hence, GNP= GDP + Net factor income from abroad. Hence statement 1 is correct.

A part of the country's capital gets consumed during the year due to wear and tear. This wear and tear are called depreciation. Naturally, depreciation does not become part of anybody’s income. If we deduct depreciation from GNP the measure of aggregate income that we obtain is called Net National Product (NNP). Thus

NNP= GNP – Depreciation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

29. Which of the following is/are included when estimating National Income?

1. Value of final goods

2. Retirement pension

3. Sale of old objects

4. Capital gains

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: National income accounting is the process of counting the flow of money between sectors and summing them to obtain the total value of economic activity in an economy.

Precautions in measuring National Income:

• The value of final goods and services are added.
• Income equal to the value of production for self-consumption is considered.
• Indirect taxes are not included while estimating National Income at factor cost.
• The retirement pension is not included.
• Payments that are not received in return for a service or production is not considered.
• Capital gains that are not achieved due to actual production are not included.
• Illegal money through smuggling etc. is not included as it cannot be easily estimated.
• Death duties, tax on lotteries etc. are paid from past saving or wealth and not from current income. So, they are not be treated as a part of the national income of a year.
• Income from the sale of second-hand goods is not included.

30. In the context of India, Dharmashala Declaration was recently seen in the news. It is associated with

a) Tibetan refugees

b) Tourism

c) Food security

d) Religious harmony

Explanation: At the National Conference of State Tourism Minister, the “Dharamshala Declaration” was adopted for developing “sustainable and responsible tourism” and positions India as a “global leader in the tourism sector by 2047”.

31. Great bear is a

a) Galaxy

b) lanet

c) Star

d) Constellation

Explanation: Ursa Major is a constellation in the northern sky, whose associated mythology likely dates back into prehistory. Its Latin name means "greater bear,"

32. In which of the following the lunar eclipse occurs?

a) Full Moon

b) New Moon

c) First Quadrature

d) Third Quadrature

Explanation: Lunar eclipses occur at the full moon phase. When Earth is positioned precisely between the Moon and Sun, Earth's shadow falls upon the surface of the Moon, dimming it and sometimes turning the lunar surface a striking red over the course of a few hours. Each lunar eclipse is visible from half of Earth.

33. Pole star is always seen at one point in the sky whereas other stars are not. This is because …….

a) Pole star rotates with the same period as the earth

b) Pole star is a star of our own galaxy

c) Sun and Pole star are in two opposite directions relative to earth

d) Pole star lies in the axis of spin of the earth

Explanation: Pole star appears to be fixed in one place while all other stars seem to move from east to west because it is situated in the line of the earth's axis on which earth rotates.

34. The length of its day and the tilt of its axis are almost identical to those of the earth’. This is true of ……….

a) Uranus

b) Neptune

c) Saturn

d) Mars

Explanation: This means that a day on Mars is equivalent to 1.025957 days. The seasonal cycles on Mars, which are due to it having an axial tilt similar to Earth's (25.19° compared to Earth's 23.4°), are more similar to those we experience on Earth than on any other planet.

35. Which one of the following statements regarding shooting stars is incorrect?

a) They are meteors

b) They are the debris which got separated from a comet

c) They emit light due to extremely high temperature caused by friction while they are passing through earth’s atmosphere

d) They are a kind of a star

Explanation: A "falling star" or a "shooting star" are caused by tiny bits of dust and rock called meteoroids falling into the Earth's atmosphere and burning up. Meteors are commonly called shooting stars.

At certain times of the year, you are likely to see a great number of meteors in the night sky. These events are called meteor showers and they occur when the Earth passes through the trail of debris left by a comet as it orbits the sun. Hence option "d" is the incorrect statement regarding shooting stars.

36. Consider the following statements:

1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.

2. The albedo of mercury is much greater than the albedo of the earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Albedo is the fraction of the incident sunlight that is reflected from surface of an object. When an object reflects most of the light that hits it and looks bright then it has high albedon. ex: Snow and ice have high albedo.

Albedo of mercury and the earth is 0.142 and 0.367 respectively. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 

37. What are Sun Spots?

a) Regions on earth without winter climate

b) Desert areas on the sun

c) Dark patches on the surface of the sun which are cooler areas

d) Dark patches on the surface of the Sun resulting from a localised fall in the temperature to about 4000 K.

Explanation: Sunspots are phenomena on the Sun's photosphere that appear as temporary spots that are darker than the surrounding areas. Dark patches on the surface of the Sun resulting from a localised fall in the temperature to about 4000 K.

38. Lunar sea refers to ……….

a) A small sea on the moon

b) A sea on earth which experiences high tides due to gravitational attraction of the moon

c) A dark plain on the moon

d) A light water body illuminated by the moon-light.

Explanation: The lunar seas are plains of solidified lava which appear dark on the Moon's disc.

39. Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?

a) P-waves

b) Rayleigh waves

c) S-waves

d) Love waves

Explanation: P-wave is one of the two main types of elastic body waves, called seismic waves in seismology. Also known as the primary wave or the pressure wave. P-waves travel faster than other seismic waves and hence are the first signal from an earthquake to arrive at any affected location or at a seismograph.

40. The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?

a) Epicentre

b) Hypocentre

c) Circumcentre

d) None of the above

Explanation: Hypocenter is the point where the seismic energy is released. Epicenter is the point on the surface nearest to the focus of an earthquake.

General English

Directions (41-48):  Each of the following questions consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is farthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.

41. The office was spacious, but without any trace of ostentation

a) Miserliness 

b) Simplicity

c) Purity 

d) Innocence

Explanation: The word Ostentation means pretentious or conspicuous show, as of wealth or importance; display intended to impress others.

42. The spatial and temporal dimensions of human interference in complex ecosystems.

a) Serious 

b) Political

c) Eternal 

d) Divine

Explanation: The word Temporal means of or relating to or limited by time; material or worldly

43. A deep, verdant green.

a) Dry 

b) Green

c) Beautiful 

d) Water-logged

Explanation: The word Verdant means green or blooming

44. You're an infernal nuisance

a) Paradisiac 

b) Majestic

c) Peaceful 

d) Graceful

Explanation: The word Infernal means hellish; fiendish; diabolical whereas the word paradisiac means of, like, or befitting paradise.

45. He could have strangled this impudent upstart.

a) Brave 

b) Gentle

c) Polite 

d) Boisterous

Explanation: The word Impudent means shameless or immodest.

46. I feel a bit heretical saying this, but I think the film has too much action.

a) Pious 

b) Orthodox

c) Superstitious 

d) Outdated

Explanation: The word Heretical means holding an opinion at odds with what is generally accepted.

47. Obscure

a) Filthy 

b) Unknown

c) Untidy 

d) Well known

Explanation: The word Obscure means not discovered or known about or  uncertain.

48. Pliable

a) Wilful 

b) Stubborn

c) Firm 

d) Opinionated

Explanation: The word Pliable means being easily influenced

Directions (49-55):  In each of the following question, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

49. Sympathy : Merciless

a) Pathetic : Pity 

b) Reticence : Frank

c) Predictability : Routine 

d) Noise : Ear

Explanation: Merciless is the antonym of sympathy whereas the word reticence means reserve or restraint that is the antonym of frank.

50. Society : Human

a) Spectators : Game 

b) Jungle : Animal

c) Kinship : Family 

d) Rivals : Team

Explanation: Just as humans all together make a society similarly all animals live together in a jungle.

51. Ship : Disembark

a) Discharge : Board 

b) Fail : Arrest

c) Train : Board 

d) Horse : Dismount

Explanation: When you disembark (from a ship, train or plain) similarly dismount is to get off or alight from a horse

52. Exercise : Strength

a) Games : Contest 

b) Defeat : Gain

c) Business : Resource 

d) Practice : Skill

Explanation: Just the way exercise strengthens the body; practice improves the skill.

53. Education : Illiterate

a) Rude : Well-mannered

b) Experience : Naive

c) Money : Miserly

d) Expel : Admit

Explanation: Just the way an illiterate person is limited to education; a naïve person lacks experience.

54. Light : Opaque

a) Air : Hermetic 

b) Document : Author

c) Sand : Desert 

d) Wood : Tree

Explanation: Like an opaque object does not let light pass through; hermetic means being made air tight.

55. Altruism : Philanthropist

a) Publication : Writer 

b) Soldier : War

c) Self-denial : Puritan 

d) Artist : Sculptor

Explanation: The word altruism is the synonym of philanthropy which means the principle or practice of unselfish concern for or devotion to the welfare of others and the word self denial means the sacrifice of one's own desires; unselfishness.

Directions (56-65):  Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly

CLOZE COMPREHENSION

The question whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (56) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (57) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (58). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(59) rather than of thought: given a man's emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(60) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(61) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(62) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(63) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(64) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (65).

56. a) Upon b) On c) At d) Over

56. d) The preposition ‘over’ is used to show movement, in the given question the word ‘forcing’ is showing movement/direction. Hence, option . (d) is the most suitable answer.

57. a) Delightful b) Painful c) Pleasant d) Lovely

57. b) The war is a symbol of worry, sadness, and hence, ‘painful’ is the most suitable word here contextually. In this way, other options get eliminated.

58. a) Duty b) Obligation c) Responsibility d) Crime

58. d) the war is killing one another including innocent people hence it is a type of crime. Duty, obligation, and responsibility are not observed in the war.

59. a) Feeling b) Sentiment c) Reason d) Patriotism

59. a) the revolt takes the form of war when people of a particular place/country feel something absurd or they feel oppressed for longer period of time, the word ‘sentiment’ is said to be an outcome of feeling and hence, feeling is the right answer here contextually.

60. a) However b) As well as c) Both d) Despite

60. c) ‘both’ and ‘and’ are used together, hence option (c) is the right answer. Other options do not fit correct grammatically.

61. a) Thought b) Intimated c) Suggested d) Held

61. b) ‘with’ preposition is given after the blank, now we have to check options, which will fit correct before it. We generally use thought of/about; suggested to; held on; intimated with. Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

62. a) Questions b) Answers c) Statements d) Experiences

62. a) ‘questions’ is the correct answer contextually as further lines of the passage validate the answer.

63. a) Engage b) Praise c) Attempt d) Commend

63. c) ‘Attempt’ means trying to show the feelings in the form of action by someone; here the author is trying to admit his feelings. Hence, the option(c) is the right answer.

64. a) Considered b) Observed c) Transferred d) Opined

64. a) ‘considered’ means having been thought about carefully; regarded. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable option.

65. a) Possibility b) Formula c) Force d) Standpoint

65. d) ‘Standpoint’ means a set of beliefs from which opinions are formed. Hence, option (d) is the right answer.

DIRECTIONS (66-75) : In this section you have six short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a passage, and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

PASSAGE – I

With the inevitable growth of specialization I see the universities facing two great dangers. First, it is very easy to get so involved in the technical details of education that the object of education is lost. And secondly, in an effort to condition a university to the needs of its students and to the needs of the state it may lose its power to make or mould those students into responsible men, capable of thinking for themselves and capable of expressing the results of their thoughts to others

66. Which one of the following statements most correctly suggests the warning implied in the passage ?

a) University education should not be concerned with technical details.

b) Universities should not subordinate themselves to the interests of the state.

c) Universities should be concerned only with the needs of students.

d) Universities should not go in for any specialization.

Explanation: The third sentence warns that universities may lose its power to make students think independently while constantly conditioning itself to the needs of students and the State. B reveals this warning in the passage. Hence, B is correct. 

PASSAGE – II

One December night, a family had gathered around their fireside and piled it high with wood gathered from mountain streams and ruins of great trees that had come falling down the mountain sides. The fire roared and brightened the room with its light. The faces of the father and mother had a quiet gladness’ the children laughed; the oldest daughter was the picture of happiness at seventeen’ and the aged grandmother who sat sewing in the warmest place was the picture of happiness grown old.

67. The firewood had been

a) brought 

b) stolen

c) collected 

d) found

Explanation: The first sentence says the wood was "gathered" from mountain streams and ruins of great trees that came falling down the mountain sides. The word "gathered" has the same meaning as "collected." Hence, we can say that the wood was collected. C is the correct answer. None of the other choices has the meaning contained by the word "gathered." W

68. The parents looked

a) serene 

b) cheerful

c) gloomy 

d) dull

Explanation: To be "serene" is to be "calm and peaceful." The words "quiet gladness" match this meaning. Thus, we can conclude A is correct. "Cheerful" means to be "visibly merry." 

69. The oldest daughter looked

a) stupid 

b) glad

c) intelligent 

d) mournful

Explanation: In the third sentence, the oldest daughter was described as "the picture of happiness" meaning she looked very happy. So, B is correct. 

PASSAGE – III

The unpleasant feeling passed and she glanced guardedly up at him. He was walking unmarked in moonlight, innocent of her reaction to him. She felt then – this thought had come to her before – that there might be more to him than she had imagined. She felt ashamed she had never thanked him for the help he had given her father.

70. She glanced at him when

a) He walked alone and unnoticed in moonlight

b) She was sure that she was not being noticed

c) Her reactions did not have any effect on him

d) The unpleasant feeling passed

Explanation: From the first sentence, we can say that she glanced at him after the unpleasant feeling passed. Hence, the given answer is wrong. The correct answer is D. 

71. Her unpleasant feeling passed when

a) He did not take any notice of her

b) The moonlight was beautiful

c) She realized her sense of shame

d) She looked carefully at him

Explanation: According to the last sentence, she felt ashamed because she realized she never thanked him for the help he gave to her father. So, C is incorrect. The second sentence tells us that he did not notice that she was looking at him. This made her lose the unpleasant feeling and glance at him. Hence, A is the correct answer. B and D are inconsistent with the contents of the passage. 

72. She was ashamed because

a) She was spying on him

b) There was more to him than she had imagined

c) A recurring thought came back to her

d) She had never thanked him for his help to her father

Explanation: Option D is the right answer because it is clearly mentioned in the passage that - 'She felt ashamed she had never thanked him for the help he had given her father.'

PASSAGE – IV

As I slung my pack onto my shoulders a big mosquito thudded against my cheek. There had been a few through the day, but it was early in the season – the ice had gone out just two weeks before – and I had scarcely noticed them. But now as I would down the ridge, the last breeze faded, and they were on me. Rising in clouds from the soggy tundra, they pelted against my face. I reached in my pocket for the repellent, and came up empty.

73. The traveller could not feel the breeze because

a) The mosquito had bitten him.

b) He was at the foot of the ridge.

c) There was no ice on the mountain.

d) There was no breeze on the tundra mountain.

Explanation: The third sentence states that the last breeze faded as the traveler walked down the ridge. This means that when he went down the ridge, there was no breeze. B is consistent with the contents of the passage. Hence, B is the correct answer.

74. The traveller carried with him

a) Mosquito repellent

b) A pack of food

c) A sling

d) A back-pack

Explanation: Option D is the right answer because it is clearly mentioned in the passage that - 'As I slung my pack onto my shoulders a big mosquito thudded against my cheek.' Option A is incorrect because the last line of the passage reads as - 'I reached in my pocket for the repellent and came up empty.'

75. When he was in the arctic, the time of the year was

a) Middle of winter. 

b) Early autumn

c) Early spring 

d) Middle of summer

Explanation: There are only two seasons in the Arctic: summer and winter. Hence, C is an invalid answer. B is rejected as well. According to the second sentence, the ice had gone two weeks ago. Hence, it is not winter. So, A is incorrect. The only other season is summer. Hence, D is the correct answer.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 76-80) : In the following questions, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

76. S1 : Science has given us powers fit for the gods.

S6 : And we should remember that they are very stern masters.

P : For example, we do not know how to manage our machines.

Q : Yet we use them like small children.

R : But in practice, they have become man’s masters.

S : Machines were made to be man’s servants.

The proper sequence should be :

a) R Q P S 

b) P Q R S

c) Q P S R 

d) Q P R S

77. S1 : It follows that we should enable all individuals to live a full, free, rich life.

S6 : This does not mean the regimentation of the individual.

P : We talk often of a socialistic pattern of society.

Q : We must help to bring up the buried treasure in each individual without breaking any of it.

R : That is why we have universal education as a target in our Constitution.

S : For this, certain minimum cultural and economic conditions must be provided.

The proper sequence should be :

a) Q S R P 

b) P R S Q

c) R Q P S 

d) S Q R P

78. S1 : The advancement of science is not a secret or a mysterious process.

S6 : What is he to think but to marvel at the skill of science, and to fear its power ?

P : No one tells the layman about the years of experiment and failure.

Q : If it sometimes seems so, that is just because the day-to-day work of science is so unspectacular.

R : How is he to know what has not been done, or to guess the labour of what has ?

S : You hear nothing from the research worker for years, and then, suddenly, there is the result in the headlines; penicillin or the jet engine or nuclear fusion.

The proper sequence should be :

a) Q S P R 

b) P Q R S

c) Q P S R 

d) S Q P R

79. S1 : I am the manager of travel agency in the city.

S6: I spend those twenty five minutes doing crosswords.

P : I usually catch the 8 O’clock train for my journey to the office..

Q : I live fifteen kilometres out of the city where I have a small room.

R : I go to work on the electric train everyday.

S : The train takes about twenty five minutes to get to the city.

The proper sequence should be :

a) P R S Q 

b) R Q P S

c) Q S P R 

d) S P R Q

80. S1 : Until the first atomic energy bombs fell on Hiroshima and Nagasaki, the atom and its behaviour had been remote from everyday affairs.

S6 : So the idea grew up that the product of long years at atomic research had led only to a fresh weapon of destruction more powerful than any known before.

P : There was something queer and incomprehensible about them.

Q : And secondly, that something new and devastating had been added to the list of man’s victories over nature.

R : But it, in the first place, made us realize that the atom and its ways were no longer something apart from everyday life.

S : The atomic bombing of Japan did not resolve that incomprehensibility.

The proper sequence should be :

a) P S R Q 

b) P Q S R

c) R S Q P 

d) S Q P R

****