Q. 1 +1 -0.2

Which of the following statement is NOT correct regarding the Attorney General of India?

Options:
Q. 2 +1 -0.2

Consider the following Statements about the Lokpal :

1. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose has become the First Chairman of Lokpal

2. Armed Forces don't come under the ambit of Lokpal.

3. The Salary and Allowances and other conditions of service of the Chairman are equivalent to Chief Justice of India.

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Q. 3 +1 -0.2

The Citizenship Act, 1955 has been amended how many times:

Options:
Q. 4 +1 -0.2

Who/Which among the following can extend the jurisdiction of Union Public Service Commission?

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Q. 5 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements regarding a member of Lok Sabha:

1) A nominated member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins the ruling party before 6 months from the date on which he takes his oath.

2) An independent member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any political party after his election.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:
Q. 6 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

1) He controls the entire financial system of the central and state government.

2) The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG are subject to the vote of the Parliament.

3) He is responsible to the President only.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Options:
Q. 7 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:

1) The qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected are determined by the President.

2) It is a quasi-judicial body and constituted by the President every fifth year.

3) It also decides the principles that govern the payment of grants-in-aid to states from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:
Q. 8 +1 -0.2

In case of Delhi, Chief Minister is appointed by-

Options:
Q. 9 +1 -0.2

Consider the following objectives regarding the directive principles of state policy based on Gandhian ideology:

1) To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas

2) To prohibit the slaughter of cows and calves

3) To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries

Which of the objectives given above are correct?

Options:
Q. 10 +1 -0.2

Which of the following is correct regarding the Parliament's power to reorganise the states?

1) Increase the area of any state

2) Alter the boundaries of any state

3) Alter the name of any state

Which of the powers given above are correct?

Options:
Q. 11 +1 -0.2

With reference to interventions for Schedule Tribes (STs) welfare, consider the following statements:

1) Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana aims at creating enabling environment for need based and outcome oriented holistic development of tribal people.

2) Schedule Areas under article 244 (2) deals with areas in states Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Nagaland.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

Options:
Q. 12 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements regarding public interest group and movements:

1) They promote collective rather than selective good.

2) They lead to a rough balance of power and accommodation of conflicting interest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Options:
Q. 13 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements regarding BAMCEF,

1) It is an organization largely consisting of Bonded labours.

2) The ideology of BAMCEF is based on the opposition of the caste system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

Options:
Q. 14 +1 -0.2

Which of the following basic values were accepted by all leaders much before the Constituent Assembly met to deliberate on the Constitution?

1) Universal adult franchise.

2) Right to freedom.

3) Right to equality.

4) Protection of the right of minorities.

Options:
Q. 15 +1 -0.2

In which of the following cases the Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the lok Sabha:

1) passing of non-money bills.

2) Constitutional amendments

3) Impeaching the President

4) Removing the Vice President

Options:
Q. 16 +1 -0.2

Some states in the Indian Union enjoy a special status under certain provisions of the Constitution of India Article 371:

1) These special powers are especially enjoyed in relation to the protection of land rights of indigenous peoples, their culture and also preferential employment in government services.

2) States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram, Lakshadweep enjoy special powers.

Which of the statements given above is are correct regarding special status of states?

Options:
Q. 17 +1 -0.2

Which of the following statements is/are true about multi-party system?

1) It is a feature of almost every democratic country.

2) It evolves on the basis of the social and political background of a country.

Options:
Q. 18 +1 -0.2

Which of the following criteria is/are necessary for a political party to become a recognized political party?

1) A party that secures at least four per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognized as a State party.

2) A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least six seats in the Lok Sabha is recognized as a national party.

Options:
Q. 19 +1 -0.2

Consider the recent phases in the expansion of Democracy:

1) The disintegration of the Soviet Union accelerated the democratic process.

2) More than 80 countries moved towards democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:
Q. 20 +1 -0.2

Consider the following features of democracy:

1) Holding elections of any kind is not sufficient.

2) Democracy should be based on a fundamental principle of social equality.

Which of the features given above is/are relevant?

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Q. 21 +1 -0.2

‘Money Bill’ can be introduced in:

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Q. 22 +1 -0.2

Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners of India are appointed by-

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Q. 23 +1 -0.2

Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

Options:
Q. 24 +1 -0.2

With reference to the Indian Constituent Assembly, consider the following and match the pairs:


Committee                                         Chairman

1) Union Powers Committee - A) Jawaharlal Nehru

2) States Committee - B)  Vallabhbhai Patel

3) Drafting Committee - C) Dr. B .R. Ambedkar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Options:
Q. 25 +1 -0.2

The removal process of a judge of the Supreme Court can be initiated on the grounds of:

Options:
Q. 26 +1 -0.2

Who among the following is not appointed by the President of India?

Options:
Q. 27 +1 -0.2

Ambedkar called which article of Indian Constitution as “The heart and soul of the Constitution”?

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Q. 28 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements:

1) Article 275 of Constitution empowers the Parliament to make grants to every states.

2) The statutory grants under article 275 are given to the states on recommendation of the NITI Ayog.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Options:
Q. 29 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956:


1) The act empowers the Central Government to set up a permanent tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states.

2) The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to dispute.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Options:
Q. 30 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements:

1) A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister.

2) A minister has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

Options:
Q. 31 +1 -0.2

Name the Indian Prime Minister who announced in the parliament that he would implement the Mandal Commission's recommendations. This declaration triggered nation-wide protests in India.

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Q. 32 +1 -0.2

Article 161 of the Indian Constitution confers pardoning powers and commutation of sentence powers on:

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Q. 33 +1 -0.2

Articles 5 to11 of the Indian Constitution deal with which of these aspects?

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Q. 34 +1 -0.2

Which of the following is not executive power of Governor?

Options:
Q. 35 +1 -0.2

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

Options:
Q. 36 +1 -0.2

With reference to consumer's rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1) Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2) When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3) In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Options:
Q. 37 +1 -0.2

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

Options:
Q. 38 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements:

1) The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
2) The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:
Q. 39 +1 -0.2

In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?

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Q. 40 +1 -0.2

Which of the following part of the Indian constitution is fundamental to the governance of India

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Q. 41 +1 -0.2

Which of the following is not executive power of Governor?

Options:
Q. 42 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements and choose the most valid argument:


The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment-

Options:
Q. 43 +1 -0.2

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1) A dispute between the Government of India and one or more states
2) A dispute regarding elections to either Houses of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a state
3) A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4) A dispute between two or more states
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Options:
Q. 44 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements:

1) Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha
2) It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commission to adjudicate the election disputed.
3) According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:
Q. 45 +1 -0.2

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

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Q. 46 +1 -0.2

Consider the following statements:


1) The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship.

2) The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:
Q. 47 +1 -0.2

The decision to use the electors’ photo identity cards by the Election Commission of India was taken in

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Q. 48 +1 -0.2

Under Article 74 of the Indian Constitution:

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Q. 49 +1 -0.2

The Supreme Court’s power of judicial review means

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Q. 50 +1 -0.2

A minister in the Union Executive ceases to be a minister if he does not become the member of Parliament within:

Options:

5 Answered
5 Marked
5 Not Visited
5 Marked & Answered
5 Not Answered


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